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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Within a SCADA a business needs access to the historian server in order together metric about the functionality of the environment. Which of the following actions should be taken to address this requirement?
A. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment
B. Publishing the C$ share from SCADA to the enterprise
C. Deploying a screened subnet between 11 and SCADA
D. Adding the business workstations to the SCADA domain


A. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment

Explanation:

The best action to address the requirement of accessing the historian server within a SCADA system is to isolate the historian server for connections only from the SCADA environment. Here’s why:

Security and Isolation: Isolating the historian server ensures that only authorized devices within the SCADA environment can connect to it. This minimizes the attack surface and protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.

Access Control: By restricting access to the historian server to only SCADA devices, the organization can better control and monitor interactions, ensuring that only legitimate queries and data retrievals occur.

Best Practices for Critical Infrastructure: Following the principle of least privilege, isolating critical components like the historian server is a standard practice in securing SCADA systems, reducing the risk of cyberattacks.



Question # 2
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan


B. Centralized SBoM

Explanation:

A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities. Why Centralized SBoM?

Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments. Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.

Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.

Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used. Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:

A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images. C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory. D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
"Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP


Question # 3
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:

• Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs

• Bypassing application security mechanisms

• Privilege escalation

• interference with other processes

Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?

A. SELinux
B. Privileged access management
C. Self-encrypting disks
D. NIPS


A. SELinux

Explanation:

The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (SecurityEnhanced Linux). Here's why:

Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.

Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.

Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.

Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.



Question # 4
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model


B. Prompt Injection

Explanation:

Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:

A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.

B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.

C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.

D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.

Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection

attacks Top of Form

Bottom of Form



Question # 5
A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage' (Select two).
A. Implementing allow lists
B. Monitoring network behavior
C. Encrypting data at rest
D. Performing boot Integrity checks
E. Executing daily health checks


A. Implementing allow lists

Explanation:

A. Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.

F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor, protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.

Other options:

B. Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.

C. Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but does not address network communication risks.

D. Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup but does not protect ongoing network communications.

E. Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security"
"Industrial Network Security" by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas Langill


Question # 6
An organization is looking for gaps in its detection capabilities based on the APTs that may target the industry Which of the following should the security analyst use to perform threat modeling?
A. ATT&CK
B. OWASP
C. CAPEC
D. STRIDE


A. ATT&CK

Explanation:

The ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) that may target the industry. Here’s why:

Comprehensive Framework: ATT&CK provides a detailed and structured repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what techniques they might use.

Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATT&CK matrix, analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by current detection and mitigation measures.

Industry Relevance: The ATT&CK framework is continuously updated with the latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats. It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.



Question # 7
A financial services organization is using Al lo fully automate the process of deciding client loan rates Which of the following should the organization be most concerned about from a privacy perspective?
A. Model explainability
B. Credential Theft
C. Possible prompt Injections
D. Exposure to social engineering


A. Model explainability

Explanation:

When using AI to fully automate the process of deciding client loan rates, the primary concern from a privacy perspective is model explainability.

Why Model Explainability is Critical:

Transparency: It ensures that the decision-making process of the AI model can be understood and explained to stakeholders, including clients.

Accountability: Helps in identifying biases and errors in the model, ensuring that the AI is making fair and unbiased decisions.

Regulatory Compliance: Various regulations require that decisions, especially those affecting individuals' financial status, can be explained and justified.

Trust: Builds trust among users and stakeholders by demonstrating that the AI decisions are transparent and justifiable.

Other options, such as credential theft, prompt injections, and social engineering, are significant concerns but do not directly address the privacy and fairness implications of automated decision-making.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"The Importance of Explainability in AI," IEEE Xplore

GDPR Article 22, "Automated Individual Decision-Making, Including Profiling"



Question # 8
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
A. Staging environment
B. Testing environment
C. CI/CO pipeline
D. Development environment


A. Staging environment

Explanation:

The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed explanation:

Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.

Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.

Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.



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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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  • Total Questions: 163
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