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CAS-005 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model


B. Prompt Injection

Explanation:

Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:

A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.

B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.

C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.

D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.

Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection

attacks Top of Form

Bottom of Form



Question # 2
The material finding from a recent compliance audit indicate a company has an issue with excessive permissions. The findings show that employees changing roles or departments results in privilege creep. Which of the following solutions are the best ways to mitigate this issue? (Select two).

Setting different access controls defined by business area

A. Implementing a role-based access policy
B. Designing a least-needed privilege policy
C. Establishing a mandatory vacation policy
D. Performing periodic access reviews
E. Requiring periodic job rotation


A. Implementing a role-based access policy

D. Performing periodic access reviews

Explanation:

To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are: Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

Performing Periodic Access Reviews:

Regular Audits: Periodic access reviews help identify and rectify instances of privilege creep by ensuring that users' access permissions are appropriate for their current roles. These reviews can highlight unnecessary or outdated permissions, allowing for timely adjustments.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

ISO/IEC 27001:2013 - Information Security Management



Question # 3
A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations, however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext. Which of the following solutions best meet these requirements?
A. Configuring data hashing
B. Deploying tokenization
C. Replacing data with null record
D. Implementing data obfuscation


B. Deploying tokenization

Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information.

Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management"

PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines



Question # 4
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?
A. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs
B. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.
C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs
D. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.


C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.
"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.


Question # 5
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'
A. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed
D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage


D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation


Question # 6
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
A. Securing data transfer between hospitals
B. Providing for non-repudiation data
C. Reducing liability from identity theft
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.


D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.

Explanation:

Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.

HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.

"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.



Question # 7
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
A. Compliance tracking
B. Situational awareness
C. Change management
D. Quality assurance


C. Change management

Explanation:

To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.

"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.



Question # 8
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
A. SASE
B. CMDB
C. SBoM
D. SLM


B. CMDB

Explanation:

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.

"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.



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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps

Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam
Certification Name: CompTIA CASP

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  • Total Questions: 117
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