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PT0-003 Practice Questions

Question # 1
Given the following statements:

Implement a web application firewall.

Upgrade end-of-life operating systems.

Implement a secure software development life cycle.

In which of the following sections of a penetration test report would the above statements be found?

A. Executive summary
B. Attack narrative
C. Detailed findings
D. Recommendations


D. Recommendations

Explanation:

The given statements are actionable steps aimed at improving security. They fall under the recommendations section of a penetration test report. Here’s why option D is correct: Recommendations: This section of the report provides specific actions that should be taken to mitigate identified vulnerabilities and improve the overall security posture. Implementing a WAF, upgrading operating systems, and implementing a secure SDLC are recommendations to enhance security.

Executive Summary:

This section provides a high-level overview of the findings and their implications, intended for executive stakeholders.

Attack Narrative: This section details the steps taken during the penetration test, describing the attack vectors and methods used.

Detailed Findings:

This section provides an in-depth analysis of each identified vulnerability, including evidence and technical details.

References from Pentest:

Forge HTB: The report's recommendations section suggests specific measures to address the identified issues, similar to the given statements.

Writeup HTB:

Highlights the importance of the recommendations section in providing actionable steps to improve security based on the findings from the assessment.

Conclusion:

Option D, recommendations, is the correct section where the given statements would be found in a penetration test report.



Question # 2
Which of the following OT protocols sends information in cleartext?
A. TTEthernet
B. DNP3
C. Modbus
D. PROFINET


C. Modbus

Explanation:

Operational Technology (OT) protocols are used in industrial control systems (ICS) to manage and automate physical processes. Here’s an analysis of each protocol regarding whether it sends information in cleartext:

TTEthernet (Option A):

Explanation:

TTEthernet (Time-Triggered Ethernet) is designed for real-time communication and safety-critical systems.

Security:

It includes mechanisms for reliable and deterministic data transfer, not typically sending information in cleartext.

DNP3 (Option B):

Explanation:

DNP3 (Distributed Network Protocol) is used in electric and water utilities for SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems.

Security:

While the original DNP3 protocol transmits data in cleartext, the DNP3 Secure Authentication extensions provide cryptographic security features.

Modbus (Answer: C):

Explanation:

Modbus is a communication protocol used in industrial environments for transmitting data between electronic devices.

Security:

Modbus transmits data in cleartext, which makes it susceptible to interception and unauthorized access.

References:

The lack of security features in Modbus, such as encryption, is well-documented and a known vulnerability in ICS environments.

PROFINET (Option D):

Explanation:

PROFINET is a standard for industrial networking in automation.

Security:

PROFINET includes several security features, including support for encryption, which means it doesn’t necessarily send information in cleartext.

Conclusion:

Modbus is the protocol that most commonly sends information in clear text, making it vulnerable to eavesdropping and interception.



Question # 3
During a web application assessment, a penetration tester identifies an input field that allows JavaScript injection. The tester inserts a line of JavaScript that results in a prompt, presenting a text box when browsing to the page going forward. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?
A. SQL injection
B. SSRF
C. XSS
D. Server-side template injection


C. XSS

Explanation:

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) is an attack that involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Here’s why option C is correct:

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): This attack involves injecting JavaScript into a web application, which is then executed by the user’s browser. The scenario describes injecting a JavaScript prompt, which is a typical XSS payload.

SQL Injection: This involves injecting SQL commands to manipulate the database and does not relate to JavaScript injection.

SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery): This attack tricks the server into making requests to unintended locations, which is not related to client-side JavaScript execution.

Server-Side Template Injection: This involves injecting code into server-side templates, not JavaScript that executes in the user’s browser.

References from Pentest:

Horizontall HTB: Demonstrates identifying and exploiting XSS vulnerabilities in web applications. Luke HTB: Highlights the process of testing for XSS by injecting scripts and observing their execution in the browser.



Question # 4
A tester performs a vulnerability scan and identifies several outdated libraries used within the customer SaaS product offering. Which of the following types of scans did the tester use to identify the libraries?
A. IAST
B. SBOM
C. DAST
D. SAST


D. SAST

kube-hunter is a tool designed to perform security assessments on Kubernetes clusters. It identifies various vulnerabilities, focusing on weaknesses and misconfigurations. Here’s why option B is correct:
Kube-hunter: It scans Kubernetes clusters to identify security issues, such as misconfigurations, insecure settings, and potential attack vectors.
Network Configuration Errors: While kube-hunter might identify some networkrelated issues, its primary focus is on Kubernetes-specific vulnerabilities and misconfigurations.
Application Deployment Issues: These are more related to the applications running within the cluster, not the cluster configuration itself.
Security Vulnerabilities in Docker Containers: Kube-hunter focuses on the Kubernetes environment rather than Docker container-specific vulnerabilities.
References from Pentest:
Forge HTB: Highlights the use of specialized tools to identify misconfigurations in environments, similar to how kube-hunter operates within Kubernetes clusters.
Anubis HTB: Demonstrates the importance of identifying and fixing misconfigurations within complex environments like Kubernetes clusters.
Conclusion:
Option B, weaknesses and misconfigurations in the Kubernetes cluster, accurately describes the type of vulnerabilities that kube-hunter is designed to detect.


Question # 5
In a cloud environment, a security team discovers that an attacker accessed confidential information that was used to configure virtual machines during their initialization. Through which of the following features could this information have been accessed?
A. IAM
B. Block storage
C. Virtual private cloud
D. Metadata services


D. Metadata services

In a cloud environment, the information used to configure virtual machines during their initialization could have been accessed through metadata services.
Explanation:
Metadata Services:
Other Features:
Pentest References:
Cloud Security: Understanding how metadata services work and the potential risks associated with them is crucial for securing cloud environments.
Exploitation: Metadata services can be exploited to retrieve sensitive data if not properly secured.
By accessing metadata services, an attacker can retrieve sensitive configuration information used during VM initialization, which can lead to further exploitation.


Question # 6
A penetration tester is conducting reconnaissance on a target network. The tester runs the following Nmap command: nmap -sv -sT -p - 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following describes the most likely purpose of this scan?
A. OS fingerprinting
B. Attack path mapping
C. Service discovery
D. User enumeration


C. Service discovery

The Nmap command nmap -sv -sT -p- 192.168.1.0/24 is designed to discover services on a network. Here is a breakdown of the command and its purpose:
Command Breakdown:
Purpose of the Scan:
Conclusion: The nmap -sv -sT -p- 192.168.1.0/24 command is most likely used for service discovery, as it aims to identify all running services and their versions on the target subnet.


Question # 7
A penetration tester discovers evidence of an advanced persistent threat on the network that is being tested. Which of the following should the tester do next?
A. Report the finding.
B. Analyze the finding.
C. Remove the threat.
D. Document the finding and continue testing.


A. Report the finding.

Explanation:

Upon discovering evidence of an advanced persistent threat (APT) on the network, the penetration tester should report the finding immediately.

Explanation:

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT):

Definition: APTs are prolonged and targeted cyberattacks in which an intruder gains access to a network and remains undetected for an extended period.

Significance: APTs often involve sophisticated tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) aimed at stealing data or causing disruption.

Immediate Reporting:

Criticality: Discovering an APT requires immediate attention from the organization’s security team due to the potential impact and persistence of the threat.

Chain of Command: Following the protocol for reporting such findings ensures that appropriate incident response measures are initiated promptly.

Other Actions:

Analyzing the Finding: While analysis is important, it should be conducted by the incident response team after reporting.

Removing the Threat: This action should be taken by the organization’s security team following established incident response procedures.

Documenting and Continuing Testing: Documentation is crucial, but the immediate priority should be reporting the APT to ensure prompt action.

Pentest References:

Incident Response: Understanding the importance of immediate reporting and collaboration with the organization’s security team upon discovering critical threats like APTs. Ethical Responsibility: Following ethical guidelines and protocols to ensure the organization can respond effectively to significant threats.

By reporting the finding immediately, the penetration tester ensures that the organization’s security team is alerted to the presence of an APT, allowing them to initiate an appropriate incident response.



Question # 8
Which of the following is a term used to describe a situation in which a penetration tester bypasses physical access controls and gains access to a facility by entering at the same time as an employee?
A. Badge cloning
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Tailgating
D. Site survey


C. Tailgating

Explanation:

Tailgating is the term used to describe a situation where a penetration tester bypasses physical access controls and gains access to a facility by entering at the same time as an employee. Explanation:

Tailgating:

Definition: Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without the latter’s consent or knowledge. The authorized person typically opens a door or checkpoint, and the unauthorized person slips in behind them.

Example: An attacker waits near the entrance of a building and enters right after an employee, bypassing security measures.

Physical Security:

Importance: Physical security is a crucial aspect of overall security posture. Tailgating exploits human factors and weaknesses in physical security controls.

Prevention: Security measures such as turnstiles, mantraps, and security personnel can help prevent tailgating.

Pentest References:

Physical Penetration Testing: Tailgating is a common technique used in physical penetration tests to assess the effectiveness of an organization’s physical security controls.

Social Engineering: Tailgating often involves social engineering, where the attacker relies on the politeness or unawareness of the employee to gain unauthorized access.

By understanding and using tailgating, penetration testers can evaluate the effectiveness of an organization’s physical security measures and identify potential vulnerabilities that could be exploited by malicious actors.



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